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Section 29A of IBC: Ineligible Resolution Applicants Guide

IBC By Ashish Jain · IIBF STORE Editorial · 15 August 2026 · Updated 28 Sep 2026 · 10 min read · 30 views
Section 29A of IBC: Ineligible Resolution Applicants Guide

When a stressed company is put up for resolution, the question of who is allowed to bid matters as much as how much is bid. Section 29A of IBC is the gatekeeping provision that keeps defaulting promoters, wilful defaulters and their connected persons out of the bidding room for their own company. For bankers, credit officers and IIBF candidates, this single section decides whether a resolution plan survives scrutiny or collapses at the approval stage.

This guide walks through every disqualification, the cure windows that let an applicant come back in, the leading Supreme Court rulings, and the relaxations that MSMEs enjoy. Each point is written the way the exam asks it: clause letter, trigger, and consequence.

🚫 Why Section 29A Was Inserted and What It Bars

The Code as enacted in 2016 contained no eligibility filter for resolution applicants. Within a year, promoters whose mismanagement had pushed companies into default began bidding to buy the same assets back at a steep haircut, funded by the very lenders they had defaulted on. Parliament responded with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2018, giving retrospective effect to the Ordinance of 23 November 2017.

The section operates as a negative list. It does not say who may bid; it lists ten categories of persons who may not submit a resolution plan, either directly, jointly, or in concert with others. The bar attaches not only to the applicant but to every connected person, which is why due diligence under this provision runs several corporate layers deep.

Section 30(1) requires every resolution applicant to file an affidavit affirming eligibility, and Section 30(4) forbids the committee of creditors from approving a plan submitted by an ineligible person. The resolution professional therefore screens each prospective applicant against the section before publishing the final list, a duty explained further in our chapter on the Roles and Duties of IRP and RP.

💡 Exam Tip: Section 29A does not disqualify a person from being a creditor, a director elsewhere, or a bidder in an unrelated case. It disqualifies a person only from submitting a resolution plan for that particular corporate debtor.

📋 The Ten Clauses, from (a) to (j)

Clause (a) bars an undischarged insolvent. Clause (b) bars a wilful defaulter identified in accordance with Reserve Bank of India guidelines issued under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Clause (c) is the most litigated: it bars a person whose account, or an account of a corporate debtor under that person's management or control, has been classified as a non-performing asset for at least one year before the insolvency commencement date.

Clause (d) covers conviction for an offence punishable with imprisonment of two years or more under any law listed in the Twelfth Schedule, or seven years or more under any other law. Clause (e) bars a person disqualified to act as a director under the Companies Act, 2013, and clause (f) bars a person restrained by the Securities and Exchange Board of India from accessing the securities market.

Clause (g) bars a promoter or manager of a company in which an avoidance order has been passed under Sections 43, 45, 50 or 66, a link explored in detail in our companion piece on avoidance transactions under ibc. Clause (h) bars a person whose guarantee in favour of a creditor of the corporate debtor has been invoked and remains unpaid. Clause (i) mirrors clauses (a) to (h) for disabilities imposed abroad, and clause (j) extends the whole list to connected persons.

ClauseDisqualification triggerCan it be cured before plan submission?
29A(a)Undischarged insolvent❌ Only on discharge under the applicable law
29A(b)Wilful defaulter per RBI guidelines❌ Requires removal of the tag by the lender
29A(c)Account NPA for one year or more✅ Pay all overdue amounts with interest and charges
29A(d)Conviction (2 years Twelfth Schedule / 7 years other law)✅ Lapses two years after release from imprisonment
29A(e)Director disqualified under Companies Act, 2013❌ Only on expiry or setting aside of disqualification
29A(f)Barred by SEBI from the securities market❌ Only on lifting of the SEBI order
29A(g)Avoidance order under Sections 43, 45, 50 or 66❌ Statutory carve-out only for clean acquirers
29A(h)Invoked guarantee remaining unpaid✅ Discharge the invoked guarantee
Key Concepts — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016
Key Concepts — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016

🔗 Connected Persons and the Financial Entity Carve-Out

Clause (j) is where most plans actually fail. Explanation I defines a connected person as anyone who is a promoter of, or in the management or control of, the resolution applicant; anyone who will be in management or control of the corporate debtor during implementation of the plan; and any holding company, subsidiary, associate company or related party of those persons.

Read literally, that would disqualify almost every large bidder, because banks, asset reconstruction companies and funds routinely hold stakes across many stressed accounts. The proviso therefore switches off the holding, subsidiary, associate and related-party limb where the resolution applicant is a financial entity and is not itself a related party of the corporate debtor.

Explanation II carries this further: a financial entity regulated by a financial sector regulator does not become a related party merely because it acquired shares of the corporate debtor by converting debt into equity before the insolvency commencement date. Without these carve-outs, lenders that had done a Strategic Debt Restructuring conversion would have been shut out of the very resolutions they were funding.

⚠️ Common Mistake: Candidates assume clause (c) is cured by upgrading the account. It is not. The proviso requires actual payment of all overdue amounts together with interest and charges, and that payment must be made before the resolution plan is submitted.

⚖️ How the Courts Have Read the Section

In ArcelorMittal India Pvt Ltd v Satish Kumar Gupta (2018), the Supreme Court held that the relevant date for testing eligibility is the date of submission of the resolution plan, and that "control" in the section means positive, de jure control rather than mere negative or veto rights. The Court also allowed a short window for the applicant to purge the clause (c) disability by clearing the NPA dues.

In Swiss Ribbons Pvt Ltd v Union of India (2019), the constitutional validity of the section was upheld. The Court reasoned that a promoter who has run a company into default has no vested right to bid for it, and that the classification between such persons and outside bidders is entirely rational.

In Bank of Baroda v MBL Infrastructures Ltd (2022), the Court confirmed that clause (h) operates automatically once a guarantee is invoked and remains unpaid, regardless of any commercial arrangement between the guarantor and the lender. The interplay between guarantee liability and eligibility is developed further in our note on personal guarantors under IBC, and the appellate route for these disputes is mapped in the chapter on Adjudication, Appeals, Offences and Penalties.

📌 Remember: Eligibility is tested at plan submission, not at admission of the application and not at the date the committee of creditors votes. Get this date right and half the case-law questions answer themselves.
Process & Framework — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016
Process & Framework — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016

🏭 MSME Relief and the Reach Beyond Resolution

Section 240A carves out micro, small and medium enterprises from clauses (c) and (h). The rationale is practical: in a small enterprise the promoter is usually the only realistic buyer, and an NPA classification or an invoked personal guarantee would otherwise leave the unit with no bidder at all. This relaxation is the foundation on which the pre-packaged insolvency resolution process for MSMEs is built.

The section also reaches past the resolution stage. Section 35(1)(f) forbids a liquidator from selling any asset of the corporate debtor to a person ineligible under Section 29A, closing the obvious loophole of buying the assets in liquidation instead of bidding for the company. The Supreme Court extended the same logic to schemes of compromise or arrangement proposed under Section 230 of the Companies Act during liquidation, reasoning that a person shut out of the front door cannot be allowed in through the back. The practical effect is that a single eligibility test now runs across resolution, liquidation sales and revival schemes alike.

Practising bankers should read Section 29A alongside the sequence in Initiation of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), and keep an eye on amendments and circulars published by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India at ibbi.gov.in. Exam notifications and the detailed IBC syllabus are hosted on the IIBF website. Data-handling duties that arise while running this due diligence are covered in our piece on data protection compliance for banks.

In Practice — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016
In Practice — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016

🧠 Practice MCQs: Section 29A of IBC

Q1. Under Section 29A(c), an account classified as a non-performing asset disqualifies a resolution applicant only if it has been so classified for a period of at least (a) 90 days (b) 180 days (c) one year (d) three years

Answer: (c) — The account must have been NPA for one year or more before the insolvency commencement date.

Q2. Which provision exempts micro, small and medium enterprises from clauses (c) and (h) of Section 29A? (a) Section 240 (b) Section 240A (c) Section 238A (d) Section 29B

Answer: (b) — Section 240A switches off only clauses (c) and (h) for MSME corporate debtors.

Q3. In ArcelorMittal India Pvt Ltd v Satish Kumar Gupta, eligibility under Section 29A was held to be tested on (a) the insolvency commencement date (b) the date of submission of the resolution plan (c) the date the committee of creditors votes (d) the date the Adjudicating Authority approves the plan

Answer: (b) — The Supreme Court fixed the date of submission of the resolution plan as the relevant cut-off.

Q4. A promoter whose guarantee in favour of a creditor of the corporate debtor has been invoked and remains unpaid is hit by which clause? (a) 29A(d) (b) 29A(f) (c) 29A(g) (d) 29A(h)

Answer: (d) — Clause (h) covers an invoked guarantee that remains unpaid in whole or in part.

Q5. Which provision bars a liquidator from selling the corporate debtor's assets to a person ineligible under Section 29A? (a) Section 33(2) (b) Section 35(1)(f) (c) Section 52(3) (d) Section 53(2)

Answer: (b) — Section 35(1)(f) applies the same eligibility filter to sales made during liquidation.

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❓ Frequently Asked Questions

Does Section 29A stop a promoter from bidding in every case?

No. A promoter is barred only if one of the ten clauses applies to that promoter or to a connected person. A promoter with no NPA history, no invoked guarantee and no disqualification is free to submit a resolution plan.

Can an applicant cure an ineligibility after the plan is submitted?

No. The cure must be completed before submission of the resolution plan, because that is the date on which eligibility is tested. Clearing NPA dues after submission does not revive an already disqualified bid.

Are banks and asset reconstruction companies treated as connected persons?

Generally no. The proviso to clause (j) excludes the holding, subsidiary, associate and related-party limb for a financial entity that is not itself a related party of the corporate debtor, so regulated lenders and ARCs can bid.

Who verifies eligibility during the process?

The resolution professional conducts due diligence on every prospective applicant and relies on the affidavit filed under Section 30(1). The committee of creditors cannot approve a plan from an ineligible person, and the Adjudicating Authority can reject a plan on this ground.

Master the eligibility rules before the exam

Section 29A rewards precise reading: clause letters, cut-off dates and cure windows. Revise it with the full Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 article library, then test yourself with the certification material in our CAIIB and certification course hub.

Quick quiz

Quick quiz on this topic

5 exam-style questions from our free test bank — check yourself before you move on.

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 · 5 questions · instant result
Q1. Which statement is the MOST accurate regarding the relationship between 'liquidation' under the IBC and 'winding-up' under the Companies Act, 2013?
Q2. The Adjudicating Authority does not receive any resolution plan before expiry of the resolution process for a corporate debtor. Under which provision and with what outcome will it act, as described in the chapter?
Q3. A liquidation estate realises ₹70 crore. CIRP and liquidation costs are ₹10 crore. In the next-ranking class, workmen's dues (24 months) are ₹30 crore and a secured creditor who relinquished security is owed ₹90 crore (these two rank equally). How much will the secured creditor receive?
Q4. Within what period from the date of commencement of the liquidation process is the Liquidator required to collect the claims of creditors?
Q5. Match Column I (provision) with Column II (subject matter) as described in the chapter: Column I: 1. Section 36 2. Section 52 3. Section 53 4. Regulation 37A Column II: a. Distribution waterfall / order of priority b. Liquidation estate (assets that constitute it) c. Assignment/transfer of a not readily realisable asset d. Secured creditor's option to relinquish or realise security
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